I'm sure you meant the Scots are always CORRECT, Laddie. God and I will allow
you to imbibe our glorious nectar until you see the truth. Then we'll allow
you to pay for the bottle just consumed...
Earl
On Tuesday 15 June 2004 04:03, you wrote:
> As I understand it (and may well be wrong), -ise and -ize endings are
> dependent on whether the word is derived from a Greek or Latin root.
> Don't ask me which is which! I'm sure one of the better list pedants
> will correct me.
> In recent times, it's become common usage for the merkins to favor the
> -ize exclusively, the poms - sorry - English to favour the -ise style
> and a very, very rare few to try and get it right.
> Assume that the Americans are usually wrong and that the Scots are
> ALWAYS wrong and you can't really go wrong. That sounds about right.
> Andrew'F
>
> On 14/06/2004, at 10:22 PM, Piers Hemy wrote:
> > Tell us more.
> >
> > I used to "recognize" a certain spelling as American until a Scotsman
> > pointed out my error (not the first time that has happened, of course)
> > and
> > referred me to OED, which confirmed that -ize has been perfectly
> > acceptable
> > in these parts for many a year.
> >
> > But what is the classical connection?
> >
> > Piers
> >
> > Insist that the choice of -ise or -ize endings be related to Greek or
> > Latin
> > roots, not to mere transatlantic ethnicity. This is serious mate
> > (unlike
> > most of my Greek or latin roots!)
> >
> > --snip
>
> http://www.pbase.com/afildes
>
>
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